Challenging the “Virgin Birth” Doctrine

I have always struggled with the concept of the Virgin Birth as espoused by the Roman Catholic Church and embraced by nearly, if not all Protestant denominations. In recent years while studying the Old Testament (or Tanakh) more in depth, I find no precedent for a woman to conceive a child without the seed of a man.

I say this not to imply that these accounts of Yeshua’s birth are false, but rather what we’ve been taught about these accounts doesn’t line up with the entirety of Scripture.

Instead of me simply arguing my belief, I’d like to lay out these accounts in the text and share what I am seeing, asking questions along the way. The account in Luke 1 appears to be speaking of something that happens prior to the account given in Matthew 1. Therefore, here are these passages in that order.

The Luke 1:26-38 Account

EDIT 3/22/17: Here’s my latest commentary on the entire chapter of Luke 1. I recommend reading this first.

A Virgin Betrothed to a Man of the House of David

(26-27) In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city of Galilee named Nazareth, to a virgin betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David. And the virgin’s name was Mary.

This is speaking of a virgin (Mary) who is betrothed to a man (Joseph) of the house of David.

EDIT 10/16/14: This identifies Mary as a “virgin”, similar to the status of Rebekah, who was chosen for Isaac.

The translation of the Aramaic Peshitta phrases the reference to a virgin “who is betrothed” as a virgin “who was acquired for a price”. This makes me think of both Rebekah and Rachel.

Abraham’s servant was sent to acquire a wife for Isaac. He secured Rebekah, most notably identified as a virgin, when he went to Laban’s house in Genesis 24.

Genesis 24:34-59 So he said, “I am Abraham’s servant. (35) The LORD has greatly blessed my master, and he has become great. He has given him flocks and herds, silver and gold, male servants and female servants, camels and donkeys. (36) And Sarah my master’s wife bore a son to my master when she was old, and to him he has given all that he has. (37) My master made me swear, saying, ‘You shall not take a wife for my son from the daughters of the Canaanites, in whose land I dwell, (38) but you shall go to my father’s house and to my clan and take a wife for my son.’ (39) I said to my master, ‘Perhaps the woman will not follow me.’ (40) But he said to me, ‘The LORD, before whom I have walked, will send his angel with you and prosper your way. You shall take a wife for my son from my clan and from my father’s house. (41) Then you will be free from my oath, when you come to my clan. And if they will not give her to you, you will be free from my oath.’

(42) “I came today to the spring and said, ‘O LORD, the God of my master Abraham, if now you are prospering the way that I go, (43) behold, I am standing by the spring of water. Let the virgin who comes out to draw water, to whom I shall say, “Please give me a little water from your jar to drink,” (44) and who will say to me, “Drink, and I will draw for your camels also,” let her be the woman whom the LORD has appointed for my master’s son.’

(45) “Before I had finished speaking in my heart, behold, Rebekah came out with her water jar on her shoulder, and she went down to the spring and drew water. I said to her, ‘Please let me drink.’ (46) She quickly let down her jar from her shoulder and said, ‘Drink, and I will give your camels drink also.’ So I drank, and she gave the camels drink also. (47) Then I asked her, ‘Whose daughter are you?’ She said, ‘The daughter of Bethuel, Nahor’s son, whom Milcah bore to him.’ So I put the ring on her nose and the bracelets on her arms. (48) Then I bowed my head and worshiped the LORD and blessed the LORD, the God of my master Abraham, who had led me by the right way to take the daughter of my master’s kinsman for his son. (49) Now then, if you are going to show steadfast love and faithfulness to my master, tell me; and if not, tell me, that I may turn to the right hand or to the left.”

(50) Then Laban and Bethuel answered and said, “The thing has come from the LORD; we cannot speak to you bad or good. (51) Behold, Rebekah is before you; take her and go, and let her be the wife of your master’s son, as the LORD has spoken.” (52) When Abraham’s servant heard their words, he bowed himself to the earth before the LORD. (53) And the servant brought out jewelry of silver and of gold, and garments, and gave them to Rebekah. He also gave to her brother and to her mother costly ornaments. (54) And he and the men who were with him ate and drank, and they spent the night there. When they arose in the morning, he said, “Send me away to my master.” (55) Her brother and her mother said, “Let the young woman remain with us a while, at least ten days; after that she may go.” (56) But he said to them, “Do not delay me, since the LORD has prospered my way. Send me away that I may go to my master.” (57) They said, “Let us call the young woman and ask her.” (58) And they called Rebekah and said to her, “Will you go with this man?” She said, “I will go.” (59) So they sent away Rebekah their sister and her nurse, and Abraham’s servant and his men.

In the case of Rachel, Jacob had to work seven years for Laban, to acquire her (well, technically he had to work 14 years for her).

Genesis 29:16-30 Now Laban had two daughters. The name of the older was Leah, and the name of the younger was Rachel. (17) Leah’s eyes were weak, but Rachel was beautiful in form and appearance. (18) Jacob loved Rachel. And he said, “I will serve you seven years for your younger daughter Rachel.” (19) Laban said, “It is better that I give her to you than that I should give her to any other man; stay with me.” (20) So Jacob served seven years for Rachel, and they seemed to him but a few days because of the love he had for her. (21) Then Jacob said to Laban, “Give me my wife that I may go in to her, for my time is completed.” (22) So Laban gathered together all the people of the place and made a feast. (23) But in the evening he took his daughter Leah and brought her to Jacob, and he went in to her. (24) (Laban gave his female servant Zilpah to his daughter Leah to be her servant.) (25) And in the morning, behold, it was Leah! And Jacob said to Laban, “What is this you have done to me? Did I not serve with you for Rachel? Why then have you deceived me?” (26) Laban said, “It is not so done in our country, to give the younger before the firstborn. (27) Complete the week of this one, and we will give you the other also in return for serving me another seven years.” (28) Jacob did so, and completed her week. Then Laban gave him his daughter Rachel to be his wife. (29) (Laban gave his female servant Bilhah to his daughter Rachel to be her servant.) (30) So Jacob went in to Rachel also, and he loved Rachel more than Leah, and served Laban for another seven years.

EDIT 10/16/14: Notice this introduction is establishing the point that Joseph is “of the house of David”, and that Mary belongs to him.

You Will Conceive in Your Womb and Bear a Son

(28-33) And he came to her and said, “Greetings, O favored one, the Lord is with you!” But she was greatly troubled at the saying, and tried to discern what sort of greeting this might be. And the angel said to her, “Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God. And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus(“Yeshua”). He will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High. And the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David, and he will reign over the house of Jacob forever, and of his kingdom there will be no end.”

At this point Mary is not pregnant yet. She is hearing for the first time that she is going to become pregnant, and she’s going to have a son.

EDIT 10/16/14: The fact that this event takes place before Mary becomes pregnant is verified later, after the son is born, when he is taken to the priest to be circumcised on the eighth day. 

Luke 2:21 And at the end of eight days, when he was circumcised, he was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before he was conceived in the womb. 

The angel Gabriel tells her what to name this child, and that he will be great and will be called the son of the Most High…*and* that he is going to be King reigning over the house of Jacob, and of his kingdom there will be no end.

This is a fulfillment of a promise given to David in 2 Samuel 7.

2Sa 7:5-16 LXX  Go, and say to my servant David, Thus says the Lord, Thou shalt not build me a house for me to dwell in.  (6)  For I have not dwelt in a house from the day that I brought up the children of Israel out of Egypt to this day, but I have been walking in a lodge and in a tent,  (7)  wheresoever I went with all Israel. Have I ever spoken to any of the tribes of Israel, which I commanded to tend my people Israel, saying, Why have ye not built me a house of Cedar?  (8)  And now thus shalt thou say to my servant David, Thus says the Lord Almighty, I took thee from the sheep-cote, that thou shouldest be a prince over my people, over Israel.  (9)  And I was with thee wheresoever thou wentest, and I destroyed all thine enemies before thee, and I made thee renowned according to the renown of the great ones on the earth.  (10)  And I will appoint a place for my people Israel, and will plant them, and they shall dwell by themselves, and shall be no more distressed; and the son of iniquity shall no more afflict them, as he has done from the beginning,  (11)  from the days when I appointed judges over my people Israel: and I will give thee rest from all thine enemies, and the Lord will tell thee that thou shalt build a house to him.  (12)  And it shall come to pass when thy days shall have been fulfilled, and thou shalt sleep with thy fathers, that I will raise up thy seed after thee, even thine own issue, and I will establish his kingdom.  (13)  He shall build for me a house to my name, and I will set up his throne even for ever.  (14)  I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son. And when[“ean” G1437, “if, in case”) he happens to transgress, then will I chasten him with the rod of men, and with the stripes of the sons of men.  (15)  But my mercy I will not take from him, as I took it from those whom I removed from my presence.  (16)  And his house shall be made sure, and his kingdom for ever before me, and his throne shall be set up for ever.

Gabriel identifies the son’s father to be David, which makes sense because we were just told that Joseph is “of the house of David”.

How Will This Be?

(34) And Mary said to the angel, “How will this be, since I am a virgin?” (or the KJV says it this way: “Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?”)

Now, why would she ask this question addressing the point that she was a “virgin” or that she “knows not a man” as reason for how this can happen?

Could it be possible this is written in such a fashion to draw our attention to the most notable “virgin” spoken of in Torah, one whom “a man had not known”, Rebekah?

Gen 24:16 LXX  And the virgin was very beautiful in appearance, she was a virgin, a man had not known her; and she went down to the well, and filled her water-pot, and came up.

This is the same terminology used between the Greek New Testament and the Greek Septuagint: “virgin” (G3933 “parthenos”) and “ know not a man” (G1097 “ginosko”, G435 “aner”).

EDIT 10/16/14: We do not know how young Mary is at this point, nor do we know when Mary was to be united with Joseph. 

Could it be possible that this announcement came while Mary was very young, perhaps too young to conceive yet?

EDIT 11/24/14: It could be that Mary was thinking the announcement given was taking place right then, and she asked how that could be since she hadn’t “known a man” at that point. But then the angel indicated the event was still yet to come as opposed to something that was happening right then or had already begun to happen.

EDIT 02/19/17: It could be that Mary isn’t even referring to a man through which this child would be begotten at all, but rather she may be referring to the caliber of man the angel was describing this child would become.

EDIT 03/22/17: Read my latest commentary on the entire chapter of Luke 1 that addresses this point better.

The Holy Spirit Will Come Upon You

(35) And the angel answered her, “The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy–the Son of God.

We’re told the Holy Spirit “will come upon” Mary, similar to how we are told much later by Yeshua that the Holy Spirit will come upon his disciples (as recorded by Luke) in Acts 1:8.

Act 1:7-8 He said to them, “It is not for you to know times or seasons that the Father has fixed by his own authority. But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.”

EDIT 10/16/14: We’re told the power of the Most High will “overshadow” her, similar to the cloud that overshadows Yeshua later, when the Voice from out of the cloud declares him to be His son in Luke 9:34.

Luke 9:34-35 As he was saying these things, a cloud came and overshadowed them, and they were afraid as they entered the cloud. And a voice came out of the cloud, saying, “This is my Son, my Chosen One; listen to him!”

EDIT 11/24/14: Given these other uses of the phrases: “will come upon you” and “will overshadow you”, we can see that they are not synonymous with “will impregnate you”.

We’re also told the child will be called “holy, the son of God”. I believe the reference to being the son of God may allude to 2 Samuel 7:14 where YHVH says,I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son.”

EDIT 10/16/14: Also, as we saw later in Luke 9:35 when the Voice from the overshadowing cloud spoke, He declared Yeshua to be His son, His chosen one.

Sadly, Luke 1:35 is a key verse used to introduce the idea that the Holy Spirit will physically father this child in Mary in place of Joseph, her rightful husband. I completely reject that notion.

There is absolutely no precedent whatsoever in the entire Tanakh (Old Testament) of the Spirit of YHVH ever physically fathering a child to a woman. Rather, there is a strong precedent for Fallen Ones (aka the sons of God referenced in Genesis 6) to physically father children through women. The fact that all life on the earth was wiped out in the flood as a result of such activity, should cause serious Bible students pause in considering the notion that “the Holy Spirit” would ever do such a thing.

Some have suggested the very act of the creation of Adam is the necessary precedent for the Holy Spirit to create a second man in Yeshua. The difference, however, is that when YHVH created man on the 6th day in Genesis 1, He concluded His work of creation, thereby resting/ceasing on the 7th day.

There are many more Scriptural rebuttals to this notion that I choose not to include in this post, but suffice it to say, I do not believe Luke 1:35 is communicating the idea that the Holy Spirit will physically father Jesus/Yeshua in Mary in place of Joseph.

For Nothing Will Be Impossible with God

(36-37) And behold, your relative Elizabeth in her old age has also conceived a son, and this is the sixth month with her who was called barren. For nothing will be impossible with God.”

Now why would Gabriel bring up the fact that Elizabeth “in her old age has also conceived a son”, indicating she was called “barren”, then stating “nothing will be impossible with God”.

Could this be to draw our attention to the most notable barren woman in Torah, conceiving a son in her old age, Sarah, of whom was said, “shall anything be impossible with the Lord”?

Gen 18:10-14 LXX And he said, I will return and come to thee according to this period seasonably, and Sarrha thy wife shall have a son; and Sarrha heard at the door of the tent, being behind him. And Abraam and Sarrha were old, advanced in days, and the custom of women ceased with Sarrha. And Sarrha laughed in herself, saying, The thing has not as yet happened to me, even until now, and my lord is old. And the Lord said to Abraam, Why is it that Sarrha has laughed in herself, saying, Shall I then indeed bear? but I am grown old. Shall anything be impossible with the Lord? At this time I will return to thee seasonably, and Sarrha shall have a son.

I find it also interesting that of the women who bore Jacob and Esau, it was Rebekah, the notable virgin, to whom YHVH spoke regarding what is to come of the children she will bear, just like with Mary in this account in Luke. And, it was Abraham, the husband of the notable barren woman in her old age, to whom was told of the conception to take place, just like with Zechariah regarding Elizabeth earlier in this chapter.

EDIT 10/16/14: It sure seems to me this account in Luke 1 was foreshadowed by Abraham/Sarah (Zechariah/Elizabeth) and possibly Isaac/Rebekah and Jacob/Leah (Joseph/Mary). And that is why all the attention to being “barren in old age” and conceiving a son as well as being “a virgin, having known not a man”, being “betrothed” and conceiving a son.

EDIT 11/24/14: I believe the mention of Elizabeth being pregnant in her old age was a signal to Mary that what the angel was telling her will happen was really from YHVH God…to encourage her to have faith this birth of a son prophesied to her will come to be.

Let It Be to Me According to Your Word

(38) And Mary said, “Behold, I am the servant of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word.” And the angel departed from her.

At the end of this scenario, Mary has not yet conceived, but she has learned that she will conceive a son…but not just any son, she will bear the Messiah who will reign on his father David’s throne as king. And she was agreeable to that.

EDIT 10/16/14: Considering what follows in the remaining verses of chapter 1, there is nothing specifically stating Mary conceives prior to John the Baptist being born of Elizabeth. In fact the last verse says, speaking of John:

Luke 1:80 And the child grew and became strong in spirit, and he was in the wilderness until the day of his public appearance to Israel.

The very next verse says, “In those days…” leading into the account of Joseph traveling with Mary, his “purchased bride” to Bethlehem to register for the census. At this point Mary is clearly pregnant. The question is, “in which days did this happen?” The days when John “grew and became strong in spirit and was in the wilderness”?

The point is, we do not know how much time transpired between the point at which Mary received the announcement of her *going to* conceive a son and her actually conceiving him. This gap in time may be significant.

EDIT 11/24/14: Considering what Elizabeth says when Mary goes to visit her, Mary’s reply appears to be a statement of faith that what she was told by the angel will indeed come to pass.

Luke 1:45 And blessed is she who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what was spoken to her from the Lord.”

The Matthew 1:1-25 Account

EDIT 4/22/17: Here’s my latest commentary on the entire chapter of Matthew 1. I recommend reading this first.

Jesus (Yeshua) Christ, the Son of David

Moving over to Matthew’s account in chapter 1, we learn that Yeshua is the son of David by way of his father, Joseph in verses 1-17.

Mat 1:1-17 The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham. Abraham was the father of Isaac, and Isaac the father of Jacob, and Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers, and Judah the father of Perez and Zerah by Tamar, and Perez the father of Hezron, and Hezron the father of Ram, and Ram the father of Amminadab, and Amminadab the father of Nahshon, and Nahshon the father of Salmon, and Salmon the father of Boaz by Rahab, and Boaz the father of Obed by Ruth, and Obed the father of Jesse, and Jesse the father of David the king. And David was the father of Solomon by the wife of Uriah, and Solomon the father of Rehoboam, and Rehoboam the father of Abijah, and Abijah the father of Asaph, and Asaph the father of Jehoshaphat, and Jehoshaphat the father of Joram, and Joram the father of Uzziah, and Uzziah the father of Jotham, and Jotham the father of Ahaz, and Ahaz the father of Hezekiah, and Hezekiah the father of Manasseh, and Manasseh the father of Amos, and Amos the father of Josiah, and Josiah the father of Jechoniah and his brothers, at the time of the deportation to Babylon. And after the deportation to Babylon: Jechoniah was the father of Shealtiel, and Shealtiel the father of Zerubbabel, and Zerubbabel the father of Abiud, and Abiud the father of [Abner and Abner brought forth*] Eliakim, and Eliakim the father of Azor, and Azor the father of Zadok, and Zadok the father of Achim, and Achim the father of Eliud, and Eliud the father of Eleazar, and Eleazar the father of Matthan, and Matthan the father of Jacob, and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ. So all the generations from Abraham to David were fourteen generations, and from David to the deportation to Babylon fourteen generations, and from the deportation to Babylon to the Christ fourteen generations.

*[Abner and Abner brought forth] appears in the DuTillit Hebrew text, according to a footnote in the ISR’s “The Scriptures” translation.

EDIT 10/16/14: There are some who contest this lineage due to a curse placed on the house of Jeconiah in Jeremiah 22. However, this lineage in Matthew indicates Josiah is the father of Jechoniah, while the Jeconiah addressed in Jeremiah 22 refers to “the son of Jehoiakim”, a different man.

Jeremiah 22:24-26 “As I live, declares the LORD, though Coniah (aka Jechoniah) the son of Jehoiakim, king of Judah, were the signet ring on my right hand, yet I would tear you off (25) and give you into the hand of those who seek your life, into the hand of those of whom you are afraid, even into the hand of Nebuchadnezzar king of Babylon and into the hand of the Chaldeans. (26) I will hurl you and the mother who bore you into another country, where you were not born, and there you shall die.

Here is a video explaining further the two Jechoniahs: the son of Josiah, and the son of Jehoiakim, giving references so you can do your own homework concerning the matter.

Now the Birth of Jesus (Yeshua) Christ…

(18) Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When For his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph before they came together she was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit.

EDIT 10/16/14: Sadly, Matthew 1:18 is another key verse used to introduce and/or further the idea that the Holy Spirit intercepted the union between Mary and her rightful husband by physically fathering this child in Mary. However, given all that I have read in the Tanakh, I have to reject that notion.

EDIT 01/28/14: The word translated as “When” in this verse is “gar” (G1063). It is used 1,061 times in the New Testament and translated as “for” 1,031 times in the KJV. It is translated as “when” only one time in the KJV. That is, in this particular verse.

EDIT 02/19/17: Notice this is the telling of “the birth” of Jesus Christ, not his conception.

Here we see the clause “before they came together”. “Came together” is translated from the word “sunerchomai” (G4905) which means: “to come together to assemble or of conjugal cohabitation” or “to go (depart) or come with one, to accompany one” (according to Thayer). It comes from the words “sun” (G4862 “with”) and “erchomai” (G2064 “to come”). It’s used 32 times in the New Testament and is never referred to anywhere else as meaning “to have sexual relations”, but rather, it simply means, “to come together”.

EDIT 10/16/14: The clause “before they came together” falls between two events: (1) Mary being betrothed to Joseph and (2) Mary discovering she was with child. Many often read this clause in conjunction with the second event. However, it could very well be simply referencing the first event as indicated in the Luke account.

Consider this reading of verse 18: For his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph before they came together. She was found to be with child from the Holy Spirit.

This would just be stating the fact that Mary was acquired to be the wife of Joseph before they came together, *just like* Rebekah was acquired to be the wife of Isaac before they came together. There is nothing unusual about that.

EDIT 02/19/17: This reference to “coming together” may not have anything to do with coming to live together at all. But rather, it could be speaking of coming together to travel down to Bethlehem for the census mentioned in Luke 2. If we notice, Matthew 2:1 indicates the baby is born in Bethlehem.

And Jesus having been born in Beth-Lehem of Judea, in the days of Herod the king, lo, mages from the east came to Jerusalem, saying, `Where is he who was born king of the Jews? for we saw his star in the east, and we came to bow to him.’ (Mat 2:1-2 YLT)

We’re told, “she was found to be with child from/by the Holy Spirit”. So, at this point Mary is pregnant.

There are some who believe this is saying the Holy Spirit “fathered” this child, but that makes no sense to me. I understand this to mean either they learned she was with child by way of the Holy Spirit or it was the Holy Spirit that enabled her to become pregnant (just like Rebekah became pregnant after Isaac prayed on her behalf). But I have no reason to believe that she became pregnant by any other means than how YHVH created mankind to procreate.

EDIT 01/28/14: It is established from the beginning that conception and birth happen after a man “knows” a woman.

Gen 4:1  And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain, and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD.

Gen 4:17  And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived, and bare Enoch: and he builded a city, and called the name of the city, after the name of his son, Enoch.

EDIT 10/16/14: We see this also with the case of David and Bathsheba conceiving and bearing Solomon, fulfilling the prophecy in 2 Samuel 7 the first time.

2 Samuel 12:24-25 Then David comforted his wife, Bathsheba, and went in to her and lay with her, and she bore a son, and he called his name Solomon. And the LORD loved him (25) and sent a message by Nathan the prophet. So he called his name Jedidiah, because of the LORD.

Her Husband Joseph, Being a Just Man…

(19) And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly.

We see that Joseph was a “just man”, so that rules out any impropriety being done on his part, and that he resolved to “divorce” her quietly, indicating they were “married” in some form or fashion.

Why was he “unwilling to put her to shame”, resolving to divorce her “quietly”?

EDIT 10/16/14: For some reason, Joseph was contemplating quietly divorcing his wife after their child had already been conceived. We are not specifically told why.

Some who read the verse as “before they came together she was found to be with child”, think Joseph cannot be the father of the child because he was a just man and this would be saying they had “pre-marital sex”. But if the verse was read as “for his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph before they came together”, and the discovery of Mary’s pregnancy was a separate event after they came together, then there is no unjust issue at all.

As we see with the case of Rebekah and Isaac, the betrothal process was simply an acquisition made by an agreement between Abraham’s servant and Rebekah’s family over the course of one night. The next day Rebekah was taken to Isaac to be his wife.

In the case with Rachel, she was betrothed to Jacob in exchange for 7 additional years of work, yet Jacob went into her after fulfilling his week with Leah before working the next seven years. They were permitted to come together right away after the agreement for future service was made.

Furthermore, when I look at all the references of betrothal in the Torah, I see no command for a ceremony prior to relations. That seems to me to be a custom of man.

But getting back to Joseph, why did he want to divorce her, being a just man. Did she do something wrong?

Do Not Fear to Take Mary as Your Wife

(20-21) But as he considered these things, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, “Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit. She will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus(“Yeshua”), for he will save his people from their sins.”

Here, we learn that Joseph (again, identified as being a “son of David”) may have been afraid to take Mary as his wife.

EDIT 1/14/15: The word translated as “fear” in this passage is (G5399) φοβέω phobeō, and according to Thayer, means “to put to flight by terrifying (to scare away)”.

I believe this was the motivation for resolving to put her away. But why would he be afraid?

Could it be because she might have told him who this child will be…the prophesied Messiah, who will reign as king on his father David’s throne? Joseph wasn’t a king; he was a carpenter according to Matthew 13:55. Is it possible that he thought he wasn’t up to snuff to handle such a task…cold feet perhaps?

Or could it be that he thought Mary was crazy, suggesting the son they would have would be the much-awaited-for Messiah? Maybe he was thinking, What are the chances of that happening? Why us?

Regardless of the reason for this fear, the angel of the Lord reassures him not to be afraid, telling him that this child indeed is from the Holy Spirit (she wasn’t making this up or hearing from some other spirit). He told him it’s a boy and confirmed the name would be Jesus/Yeshua.

Behold, the Virgin Shall Conceive and Bear a Son

(22-23) All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: “Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall call his name Immanuel” (which means, God with us).

This is a reference to a prophecy from Isaiah 7, specifically quoting verse 14 by itself.

EDIT 11/24/14: Here is the full sign:

Isaiah 7:14-17 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. He shall eat curds and honey when he knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good. For before the boy knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good, the land whose two kings you dread will be deserted. The LORD will bring upon you and upon your people and upon your father’s house such days as have not come since the day that Ephraim departed from Judah–the king of Assyria.”

I believe the attention given to “the virgin” in this account is blown way out of proportion. Using this passage as proof of an unnatural “virgin birth”, claiming it as “supernatural” or “miraculous” where the Holy Spirit somehow fathers this child, elevating the mother to some “immaculate” status all the while leaving Joseph completely out of the picture is ridiculous, in my opinion.

If one were to read the whole context of this “sign” in Isaiah 7-8, clearly the “virgin” who conceived and bore a son at that time, did so by way of the prophet, Isaiah.

Isa 8:3-8 And I went in to the prophetess; and she conceived, and bore a son. And the Lord said to me, Call his name, Spoil quickly, plunder speedily. For before the child shall know how to call his father or his mother, one shall take the power of Damascus and the spoils of Samaria before the king of the Assyrians. And the Lord spoke to me yet again, saying, Because this people chooses not the water of Siloam that goes softly, but wills to have Rassin, and the son of Romelias to be king over you; therefore, behold, the Lord brings up upon you the water of the river, strong and abundant, even the king of the Assyrians, and his glory: and he shall come up over every valley of yours, and shall walk over every wall of yours: and he shall take away from Juda every man who shall be able to lift up his head, and every one able to accomplish anything; and his camp shall fill the breadth of thy land, O God with us. [“Immanuel”]

EDIT 11/24/14: It seems to me that the sign in Isaiah’s day was to demonstrate that the child to be born was to come from one who *at that time* had no relations with a man, indicating he was speaking of a future event that *will not even begin* until the future.

EDIT 10/16/14: So why the mention of this sign from Isaiah 7 in Matthew 1? I personally believe this sign was given to indicate this child’s birth would be a catalyst for future events demonstrating YHVH was with them (just as the child’s conception and birth in Isaiah 8 was were a catalyst in the days of Isaiah).

He Took His Wife But Knew Her Not…

(24-25) When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus (“Yeshua”).

Remember, at this point Mary is already pregnant. So when Joseph woke from his sleep, he changed his mind about divorcing her quietly and did as the angel commanded him. He took his wife but “knew her not” until she gave birth. (This means he had no more sexual relations with her for that time period.) And when the boy was born, Joseph named him Jesus/Yeshua as instructed by the angel.

Wow, when these accounts are read in this sequence (Luke 1 before Matthew 1), I believe the whole story lays out quite nicely. I don’t believe it’s a stretch at all to conclude that Joseph and Mary had a baby together just like any other man and woman. However, it seems preposterous to me the doctrine that has been handed down from our Catholic fathers, declaring that the Messiah of the house of David, was born of a virgin from seed not coming from David.

I know this flies in the face of a deeply held tenet of Christian faith as well as within the Messianic community, and I will probably be excommunicated from fellowship yet again, but I feel the need to testify to this. I am more certain now than ever before, that the “Virgin Birth”, as most understand it, is simply false.

About Messyanic

Homesteading Wife, Unschooling Mom and perpetual Bible student, continually taking the road less traveled. (@messyanic)
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13 Responses to Challenging the “Virgin Birth” Doctrine

  1. IRON MAN says:

    I looked over the messyanic.com article and there’s some good and bad. I didn’t understand what the focus would be until I got midway into it. Yes I read it through but the middle is where the dime drops. Here it is in portion:

    [[Sadly, Luke 1:35 is a key verse used to introduce the idea that the Holy Spirit will physically father this child in Mary in place of Joseph, her rightful husband. I completely reject that notion.]]

    Now the idea of Yah physically fathering a child with a human is rejected by Orthodox Judaism and even Islam who vehemently state that Allah doesn’t need to lay with a woman, much less to lay with her physically to produce a son. To the Orthodox, the Spirit of Yah having sexual relations with a human is blasphemous. Rightly so. Yet, that’s the angle the author is coming from, as if there is a claim that Yah had physical intercourse with Mary.

    [[There is absolutely no precedent whatsoever in the entire Tanakh (Old Testament) of the Spirit of YHVH ever physically fathering a child to a woman. Rather, there is a strong precedent for Fallen Ones (aka the sons of God referenced in Genesis 6) to physically father children through women. The fact that all life on the earth was wiped out in the flood as a result of such activity, should cause serious Bible students pause in considering the notion that “the Holy Spirit” would ever do such a thing.]]

    The argument is that the type of procreation would be the same as angels fathering children through women. The average theory on the fallen ones is that when they fell, they took on physical bodies. Meaning, they forsook their spiritual body and took on a human body. If this is a theory the author accepts, it cannot be a reason of rebuttal for the virgin conception because YHWH is never seen taking on a physical body to physically have sex with Mary. In fact the SPIRIT is the only thing stated to be taking action in the whole thing. This is not in any way like the fallen ones. This idea is still a continuance of the theory that YHWH had physical sex with Mary.

    [[Some have suggested the very act of the creation of Adam is the necessary precedent for the Holy Spirit to create a second man in Yeshua. The difference, however, is that when YHVH created man on the 6th day in Genesis 1, He concluded His work of creation, thereby resting/ceasing on the 7th day.]]

    This is an argument (correct me if I’m wrong), that [primarily] YHWH cannot spontaneously create something, and [secondly] that he cannot spontaneously create a human body in a womb. Now my perception of this matter is that YHWH created the start of a body for his Son, and then breathed his son into that body. The writer of Hebrews makes the same argument based on this Psalm:

    Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not; but a body hast thou prepared me…
    Psalm 40:6 [LXX]

    Compare with [Heb 10:5] which holds the statement. In the Aramaic NT manuscripts it says:

    Therefore, when entering the world, he said: In sacrifices and oblations, thou hast not had pleasure; but thou hast clothed me with a body.
    Hebrews 10:5 [Murdock ANT]

    This shows the very telling symbolism of this person putting on a body as if it was clothing. Scripture supports the idea of a body being prepared before Yeshua stepped into it.

    [[(36-37) And behold, your relative Elizabeth in her old age has also conceived a son, and this is the sixth month with her who was called barren. For nothing will be impossible with God.”

    Now why would Gabriel bring up the fact that Elizabeth “in her old age has also conceived a son”, indicating she was called “barren”, then stating “nothing will be impossible with God”.

    Could this be to draw our attention to the most notable barren woman in Torah, conceiving a son in her old age, Sarah, of whom was said, “shall anything be impossible with the Lord”?

    I find it also interesting that of the women who bore Jacob and Esau, it was Rebekah, the notable virgin, to whom YHVH spoke regarding what is to come of the children she will bear, just like with Mary in this account in Luke. And, it was Abraham, the husband of the notable barren woman in her old age, to whom was told of the conception to take place, just like with Zechariah regarding Elizabeth earlier in this chapter.

    EDIT 10/16/14: It sure seems to me this account in Luke 1 was foreshadowed by Abraham/Sarah (Zechariah/Elizabeth) and possibly Isaac/Rebekah and Jacob/Leah (Joseph/Mary). And that is why all the attention to being “barren in old age” and conceiving a son as well as being “a virgin, having known not a man”, being “betrothed” and conceiving a son.]]

    This is an argument asserting that it is simply a reference to past women of renown. Though in the comparison it detracts from the obvious point of Sarah and Elizabeth being able to bear a child. In both cases it was physically impossible to bear a child unless Yah intervened. With Mary during that time frame, it was physically impossible for a virgin to become pregnant without having sex. Mary’s response concerning the impossibility of the situation was directly concerning being pregnant without knowing a man. We know this by the messenger showing that impossible things could happen through Yah. If Mary thought she should get pregnant through Joseph, it wouldn’t be impossible AT ALL. Just a little wine and candlelight… lol.

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Bw0MBr0Y5x0

    Shalom family!

    This was a great post from someone in the Messianic Believers forum. Really good observations

    • Isha says:

      I appreciate the comment. 🙂

      Re: Luke 1:35 rebuttal “Now the idea of Yah physically fathering a child with a human is rejected by Orthodox Judaism and even Islam…yet, that the angle the author is coming from, as if there is a claim that Yah had physical intercourse with Mary.”

      I am not saying there is a claim that Yah *had physical intercourse* with Mary, but I am saying the common thought is that *the Holy Spirit is the physical father of Jesus/Yeshua*.

      Regarding the reference to Genesis 6 “when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men”, this is an example of what is forbidden in Scripture. I don’t know about the “average theory” on the fallen ones taking on physical bodies, but according to Enoch 15, speaking of the fallen ones, it says:

      “And although you were sacred, spiritual and possessing eternal life, you have defiled yourselves with the blood of women, have produced with the blood of the natural realm, have lusted like humans and have done as those who are flesh and blood do. These however die and perish. Therefore have I given them wives, that they might get pregnant and produce children with them, and that this might be conducted on the earth. But you from the beginning were made spiritual, having eternal life, immortal for all generations. Therefore I did not make wives for you, because being spiritual, your dwelling is in heaven.

      “Now the Nephilim, **who are produced from spirit and flesh**, will be called on earth evil spirits, and they will live on earth. Evil spirits have proceeded from their bodies, because they were created from humans: from the sacred Watchers was their beginning and primary origin. Evil spirits they will be on earth, and the spirits of the wicked they will be called.”

      It seems that the offspring were considered products of both spirit and flesh. (I don’t see anything that says the “fallen ones” who fathered them took on physical bodies. It seems to me this would be an assumption on the part of those ascribing to the “average theory” proposed.)

      The point, however, I was attempting to make in this post is that *we see evidence* all over the place of men knowing women, thereby producing offspring which is acceptable when done according to Torah standards. But, *we also see evidence* where the relations of the sons of God (which I understand to be spirit beings who do not die) with the daughters of men was absolutely forbidden. Given this, I would expect this should cause serious Bible students pause in considering the notion that the Holy Spirit would produce offspring with the daughters of men.

      Given what Enoch says regarding the Nephilim being *the product of spirit and flesh*, it seems to me there was a forbidden *co-mingling* that took place.

      Yeshua says *flesh begets flesh* and *spirit begets spirit* in John 3, indicating to me that there are *two separate actions going on*.

      If we remove Joseph as the physical father of Yeshua, and put the Spirit of God in his stead, keeping Mary as the physical mother, then we are essentially accepting the co-mingling of spirit and flesh to produce offspring.

      If, however, we recognize that Yeshua was a product of a union in the flesh (between Joseph and Mary) and was *also* born from above in the spirit, then we can understand Yeshua being both a “son of man” and a “son of God” without violating Torah.

    • Isha says:

      Re: “the perception…that YHWH created the start of a body for his Son, and then breathed his son into that body.

      Wouldn’t that be true for everyone?

      Any child being conceived in the natural way is the handiwork of the Creator.

      Gen 4:1 says, And the man knew Eve his wife, and she conceiveth and beareth Cain, and saith, `I have gotten a man by Jehovah;’

      YHVH told Jeremiah `Before I form thee in the belly, I have known thee; and before thou comest forth from the womb I have separated thee, a prophet to nations I have made thee.’ (Jeremiah 1:4-5 YLT)

  2. Kay says:

    EDIT 01/28/14: The word translated as “When” in this verse is “gar” (G1063). It is used 1,061 times in the New Testament and translated as “for” 1,031 times in the KJV. It is translated as “when” only one time in the KJV. That is, in this particular verse.

    I looked up this verse in biblehub, and the word “gar” is not even there. Not sure if this is significant.
    http://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/1.htm

    • Messyanic says:

      Here it is in the Textus Receptus:

      Mat 1:18  τουG3588 T-GSM δεG1161 CONJ ιησουG2424 N-GSM χριστουG5547 N-GSM ηG3588 T-NSF γεννησιςG1083 N-NSF ουτωςG3779 ADV ηνG1510 V-IAI-3S μνηστευθεισηςG3423 V-APP-GSF γαρG1063 CONJ τηςG3588 T-GSF μητροςG3384 N-GSF αυτουG846 P-GSM μαριαςG3137 N-GSF τωG3588 T-DSM ιωσηφG2501 N-PRI πρινG4250 ADV ηG2228 PRT συνελθεινG4905 V-2AAN αυτουςG846 P-APM ευρεθηG2147 V-API-3S ενG1722 PREP γαστριG1064 N-DSF εχουσαG2192 V-PAP-NSF εκG1537 PREP πνευματοςG4151 N-GSN αγιουG40 A-GSN 

  3. Kay says:

    Carrie, as you have lately been taking note of the absence of the article “the” before the phrase “Holy Spirit,” looking at biblehub again, in verses 18 & 20, there article “the” is not there.

    verse 18: For his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph before they came together. She was found to be with child from (the) Holy Spirit.

    As for verse 20,
    “Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary as your wife, for that which is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.”
    what I see in the literal translation from the Greek text is something like this:
    “…for that which is conceived in her from ***spirit is set apart.***”

    http://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/1.htm

    • Messyanic says:

      Exactly.

      When we have a clearer understanding about “spirit” (“pneuma” in Greek and “ruach” in Hebrew), I think it helps us better understand what the authors of Matthew and Luke are conveying.

      I believe the notion of “the Holy Ghost” or “the Holy Spirit” as being a person (along with these translations inserting ‘the’ where it doesn’t belong and capitalizing words that are not capitalized in the original text) taints our view of what these passages surrounding the messenger’s messages are really saying. 🙁

  4. Kay says:

    (19) And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to ***divorce*** her quietly.

    I believe the word “divorce” here is better translated as “send away.”

    G630 apoluo
    Strong’s Concordance
    apoluó: to set free, release
    Original Word: ἀπολύω
    Part of Speech: Verb
    Transliteration: apoluó
    Phonetic Spelling: (ap-ol-oo’-o)
    Short Definition: I release, let go, send away, divorce
    Definition: I release, let go, send away, divorce, am rid; mid: I depart.

    G647 apostasion
    Strong’s Concordance
    apostasion: a forsaking, spec. (bill of) divorce
    Original Word: ἀποστάσιον, ου, τό
    Part of Speech: Noun, Neuter
    Transliteration: apostasion
    Phonetic Spelling: (ap-os-tas’-ee-on)
    Short Definition: repudiation, divorce
    Definition: repudiation, divorce; met: bill of divorce.

    In Hebrew, “apoluo” is “shalach.”

    H7971 shalach
    Strong’s Concordance
    shalach: to send
    Original Word: שָׁלַח
    Part of Speech: Verb
    Transliteration: shalach
    Phonetic Spelling: (shaw-lakh’)
    Shor Definition: sent

    In Hebrew, “apostasion” is “kerithuth.”

    H3748 kerithuth
    Strong’s Concordance
    kerithuth: divorcement
    Original Word: כְּרִיתוּת
    Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
    Transliteration: kerithuth
    Phonetic Spelling: (ker-ee-thooth’)
    Short Definition: divorce
    NAS Exhaustive Concordance
    Word Origin
    from karath
    Strong’s Concordance
    karath: to cut off, cut down

    Looking at Deuteronomy 24 and Matthew 19, the way I understand it is “apostasion” or “kerithuth” is legal and binding, while “apoluo” or “shalach” is not. The latter seems to be more of a casual “sending away,” which is what YHWH hates (Malachi 2:16).

  5. Kay says:

    (19) And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to ***put her to shame,*** resolved to divorce her quietly.

    G1165 deigmatizo
    Strong’s Concordance
    deigmatizó: to expose, make a show of
    Original Word: δειγματίζω
    Part of Speech: Verb
    Transliteration: deigmatizó
    Phonetic Spelling: (digh-mat-id’-zo)
    Short Definition: I hold up as an example
    Definition: I hold up as an example, make a show of, expose.

    (19) And her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to ***make a show of or expose her,*** resolved to ***send her away*** quietly.

    Does this rendering make more sense?

    • Messyanic says:

      It does to me.

      Here’s the Young’s Literal Translation:

      Mat 1:19  and Joseph her husband being righteous, and not willing to make her an example, did wish privately to send her away. 

      • Messyanic says:

        It disturbs me to see such bias in many of the translations. I’m not suggesting ill intent on the part of the translators; I imagine they were likely unconsciously translating through their personal paradigm. But the fact is there is just enough slight variation in the translations to paint a particular picture making it very difficult to unravel the intent of the original message.

        For a while I was hesitant to point out these slight nuances because I know it may seem to others like I’m manipulating the text to make it say what I want it to say. But the opposite is true. I’m trying to get back to what the authors were trying to say before the translators got a hold of their text.

        There is nothing inherently “shameful” or “disgraceful” about “making a show of” or “exposing” someone. Sure, there *could be* shame or disgrace involved, but there also could just be unwanted or unnecessary *attention* — Joseph could just be opting for privacy concerning her pregnancy as opposed to public display or scrutiny. (Which I think is completely reasonable.)

  6. Messyanic says:

    Thank you, Kay, for all your comments. I appreciate having others put forth their findings…it helps round out this study. 🙂

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